[r6rs-discuss] fixnum->flonum but no flonum->fixnum?
cowan at ccil.org
Thu Mar 20 22:03:07 EDT 2008
Bradley Lucier scripsit:
> At any rate, it appears there's a fixnum->flonum, but no flonum-
> >fixnum; is this intentional? Is there a rationale available?
I don't know for sure, but the rationale that comes to mind is that you
wouldn't know offhand how the conversion happens. You can already use
FLOOR to round toward -inf.0, CEILING to round toward +inf.0, TRUNCATE
to round toward 0, or ROUND to round off. Those should be sufficient.
(Fortran and C round toward 0, Basic rounds toward -inf.0.)
How they ever reached any conclusion at all <cowan at ccil.org>
is starkly unknowable to the human mind. http://www.ccil.org/~cowan
--"Backstage Lensman", Randall Garrett
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