[r6rs-discuss] Comparison procedures' number of arguments

[Abdulaziz Ghuloum]

On Oct 19, 2008, at 4:38 PM, John Cowan wrote:

> That would, however, undermine the otherwise reliable deduction that
> when applied to the same arguments, < and => (and likewise > and <=)
> produce results of opposite truth value.  The same is true of  
> applying <
> or <= to the reversal of the arguments of > and >= respectively.

No, because there is no such "reliable deduction" to begin with.

(< x y) does not necessarily produce the same result as (not (>= x y))

Do you need an example?

Aziz,,,